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How to protect the financial transactions from being considered money laundering?

Hello,

I have a question regarding the legality of the following scenario:

1) UAE company 100% owned by individual "A" provides service and invoices of a foreign company of which individual "A" owns 40% share.

2) UAE company 100% owned by individual "A" provides service and invoices of a foreign company of which individual "A" is an employee (CEO, General Manager or such) and has no ownership.

All transactions would be made bank to bank transfers, fully transparent, with invoices to support each transaction.

The reason I am asking is that I have seen on an online forum (not run by experts) that this might be considered money laundering or illegal invoicing!

Your help is much appreciated!

I am trying to make sure that any future ventures I might consider are done by the book and according to UAE laws.

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Dr. Mohamed Alhammadi Advocates and Legal Consultants
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10 Jan 2022, 19:07

Dear questioner,

As long as all transactions would be made bank to bank transfers, fully transparent, with invoices to support each transaction, in addition, both companies are working in legal activity, it will not be considered as money laundering.

For more details, please WhatsApp us.

10 Jan 2022, 21:30

Dear Mr. Abbas,

Thank you very much for your positive answer!

Much appreciated!

11 Jan 2022, 04:36

You are welcome!

For future information, you can contact us.

Thanks!

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